July-August 2003 - VOLUME 24 - NUMBER 7 & 8
An Interview with Branko Milanovic
BRANKO MILANOVIC is lead economist in the World Bank research group and visiting professor at the School for Advanced International Studies at Johns Hopkins University. He has conducted cutting-edge research on the scale of inequality in the world economy. His work can be accessed on the web at:
www.worldbank.org/research/inequality
http://econ.worldbank.org/ resource.php?type=5
http://ssrn.com/author= 149002.
Global inequality is extremely high. Everybody agrees on that. It is more difficult to say whether it is rising. I think that the preponderance of evidence is that it is slightly increasing or that it displays no clear trend over the last 20 years. |
Multinational Monitor: Globally, is economic inequality rising, staying the same or diminishing?
Concept one: If we treat every country as a unit, the differences between mean incomes of the countries are unambiguously rising over the last 20 years, and even over the last 50 years. In other words, countries are diverging. Concept two: If, as before, we treat each country as a unit but give a weight to each country equal to its population, then inequality has been declining over the last 20 years. That concept two is a useful one, but it is not really the one we want to study, because it is only an approximation to concept number three: the inequality of all individuals in the world. This measure of inequality takes each individual as equally important, gives to each the same weight, and adjusts for differences in price levels between the countries. It is the most difficult concept to calculate, not the least because we didn't have, or had only very fragmentary, data on national income distributions for many countries until very recently. These national distributions are necessary if we want to derive a world distribution of income across individuals. Now, regarding concept three, we can say that inequality is extremely high. Everybody agrees on that. It is more difficult to say whether it is rising. I think that the preponderance of evidence is that it is slightly increasing or that it displays no clear trend over the last 20 years. MM: When you are measuring inequality, are you looking at income or wealth?
MM: Do you have any intuition of what you would find if the data existed on assets and wealth?
MM: To return to the three different approaches to assessing global inequality, what makes for such different results? What role does China play?
The difference in results between concepts one and two for the most recent period is precisely due to the role of China. China, and to a lesser extent India, have grown very fast during the last 20 years. Since they started as very poor countries, and indeed very populous countries, they have reduced the distance between their own GDP per capita and the world's average or median income. This, when we use population weights, has contributed to reducing inequality as expressed by concept two. Most people stop at that point. They say that since China was very poor, and since it is a large country that has grown fast, it must have reduced inequality. So far so good. But then we have to go one step further and ask, What has happened to inequality within China? As a matter of fact, inequality in both China and India has increased significantly. When we add that component, and take also into account increasing national inequality in countries as diverse as the UK, the United States, Russia, Indonesia, Nigeria, etc., then we find that overall inequality between people in the world is constant or slightly increasing. MM: So both China and India are large countries in the developing world that are growing significantly although in different amounts, but where internal inequality is rising?
When we think about world inequality, there are basically two steps. Step one, are mean incomes in China and India rising? We say yes and it is good news both for reducing world poverty and world inequality. In step two, we ask, is inequality within China and India increasing? The answer is, yes, it is going up. Inequalities between different provinces or states are rising, and inequalities between urban and rural areas have increased, and of course inequality between individuals has gone up. Because these are inequalities between large numbers of people, they contribute significantly to world inequality. So these two aspects always have to be kept in mind: what is happening to the mean income of China and India, and what is happening to the distribution within these two nations. Of course, for the sake of simplicity I am speaking of these two countries alone because they, together with the United States and Western Europe, are key in influencing the evolution of world inequality. But formally speaking the same analysis applies to every country. MM: Is there any rule that suggests that growing economies should be characterized by rising levels of inequality?
There are also more recent views that hold the reverse. This perspective holds that high inequality is an obstacle to growth, because you may have an entrenched elite which does not care about the country and this fosters political instability; also because people are not able to work in the areas where their contribution, given their talents, would be greatest. For instance, if you have lots of poor people who cannot get a proper education, and despite their inherent abilities, end up selling trinkets on the streets, that is clearly not going to be very good for growth. We have different theories, but none of the theories works perfectly. While some theories might work okay when we compare countries' inequalities at a point in time, they may not work when we analyze the evolution of a single country over time. In the West, we have seen major declines in inequality during the last century, and at the same time these countries have grown tremendously. In sum, there is really no clear cut relationship between level of income and growth on the one hand, and inequality on the other. The relationship seems to depend on many other things like institutions, spread of education, democracy, social history of the country and the like. MM: To look at regions, say Latin America, what is the level of relative inequality there and how do you see that impacting on overall growth and economic dynamism?
On top of that, we have had in Latin America a so-called lost decade (the 1980s). The mean income of many Latin American countries is today the same as 20 years ago. Two decades ago, the Latin American region, along with Eastern Europe, was the middle class of the world. With incomes stagnant in Latin America and sharply down in Eastern Europe, that "world middle class" has collapsed. So what has happened over the last 20 years in Latin America has exacerbated global inequality. MM: What is the profile of inequality in Africa?
But we do know that Africa has traditionally been characterized by very high levels of inequality, similar to those in Latin America. To give you sort of a feeling how large they are, inequality levels are close to double of those in the United States. There is no clear evidence whether inequality within African countries has gone up or down over the last 10 years. Actually, at such high levels of inequality as in Africa, it is difficult to have further increases. You cannot have a situation where one person has the entire income of the country. People would simply die or rebel at zero income. MM: In general, growth rates in Africa have been negative over the last 20 years, but even so, they've managed to maintain the levels of inequality.
MM: Recent experience in Eastern Europe is particularly interesting because countries there started with a population that had relatively high levels of equality prior to the collapse of the Soviet bloc and communism.
On top of that, in almost all countries of Eastern Europe, income inequality has shot up quite significantly. However, the picture in Eastern Europe is a little bit more diversified than in other regions. Central European countries have now regained income levels of 10 years ago and maybe have even advanced, and there was not much of an increase of inequality in countries like the Czech Republic or Slovenia. On the other hand, we have had tremendous declines of income in most of the former Soviet Union, for example in Russia, Ukraine, Moldova and Armenia, and also tremendous increases in inequality in these countries. So for the poor and a lot of middle class in these countries, the transition from Communism has been a "double whammy." MM: So the group of countries that have managed to rebound and either stay where they were or grow are relatively more equal versus the countries that have had negative growth rates and higher levels of inequality. What accounts for those two factors going together?
For example, countries of Central Europe have continued with large spending on social programs for the unemployed, for children, for families, pensioners and so forth. They have also been able to preserve institutions and to observe the rules much better than the countries with larger increases in inequality. It is almost impossible not to see that the way privatization was conducted in Russia led both to the collapse of institutions, and contributed to increased inequality. Russian-type privatization (and, of course, Russia is not the only such country) meant that some people have been able to acquire assets for practically free. They then had to manipulate public institutions so that nothing they acquired de facto illegally would be taken away from them. So these three things went hand in hand: the type of privatization, the collapse of institutions, and the increase in inequality. MM: There has been quite a considerable debate in recent years about whether processes of economic globalization are contributing to or diminishing inequality. What is your perspective on that?
My view, based on my own work as well as that of a number of people, including Robert Barro and Martin Ravallion, is that in very poor countries increased openness to foreign investment and trade might exacerbate inequalities. Large segments of people in those countries are totally unskilled, at least in terms of the demands of the modern economy, and cannot take advantage of international trade. Only the relatively few medium- and high-skilled people in those countries can get ahead. There is some evidence that it is only at some middling levels of income around the three C's -- Chile, Colombia and the Czech Republic -- where one might find a reversal in the sense that the poor benefit more from openness than the rich. Note however that even when we say that they benefit more, we mean that they benefit more in terms of their initial (pre-trade) income. But since that income may be, and often is, much lower than income of middle and upper strata, absolute income gains from openness would still be skewed towards the rich. In conclusion, I would think that the overall picture is fairly nuanced and that it is difficult to say that globalization simply increases inequality or decreases it. MM: Is it the case that trading among countries that are closer in economic levels confers broader benefits than trading among countries that are economically disparate?
But there are two elements here. One element is that you might have benefits from trade even for dissimilar countries (as the theory of comparative advantage suggests). Opening oneself to trade might be good for the mean income of both countries. Yet even there the gains from trade may be unequal between the two countries. The second question is how the increase in mean income is distributed between people in the country. There, under some conditions, as I mentioned before, trade might exacerbate inequality. MM: Are there other elements of economic globalization or processes of international trade or international investment flows that contribute significantly to equality or inequality?
Elements which level inequality have to do mostly with domestic policies -- investment in education, in health and infrastructure, and social transfers as well as progressive taxation. It is more difficult to think of international factors that have the same effect, although trade and openness might be equalizing in countries with some reasonably high level of income, higher than the turning point of our three-C countries. MM: Is it fair to say that the global financial system has evolved so that it makes sense to talk about global interest rates and that that was less so in a previous period?
MM: What have you found in looking at the period of de-globalization between the end of WWI and the start of WWII?
I was motivated to study this period for the following reason. The mainstream position, in a simplified way, is to say that integration is good because it leads to convergence in incomes. But if you look at the first period of globalization, from 1870-1913, at the world level you find a huge divergence of incomes. The poor countries at that time did not catch up at all, they actually fell behind in absolute terms while the already richer countries -- the United Kingdom, France, the rest of Western Europe, the United States -- became richer. Now most economists either ignore this fact or say that this is because poor countries did not really integrate. So presumably the theory is still correct but applies only to the countries that do integrate and/or are at a similar level of income. Well, when you look at such countries, Western Europe and North America, in the period between the two wars, which was clearly a period of de-globalization, you would expect that their incomes should diverge. If the set of rich countries converges during the period of globalization, then they should diverge during the period of de-globalization. But you don't find that. You find continued convergence of incomes. If integration equals convergence among the club of the rich, why is it then that the disintegration between the two wars is associated with convergence of incomes as well? This leads me to believe that transfer of knowledge and information, among countries at a similar level of income, is very important in furthering convergence. In other words, it is not trade alone. MM: Does all this matter? Why should anyone care about levels of inequality?
This process is very similar to what happened in nation states in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. Nobody cared about inequality when people lived in small hamlets which were totally isolated from each other. Once you start communicating, though, you realize that some other people are richer, often much richer than you. They may not work harder than you or be smarter than you, but they may have an income which is 10 times as high. That creates lots of anger and negative feelings. Some people call it envy and treat it as somehow unacceptable. But even if this were the case, you cannot just rule envy out and forbid it to influence people's behavior. But treating it as envy is fundamentally wrong. One man's envy is another man's justice: a rich man considers each comparison of incomes to be a product of envy; a poor man might on the contrary see the same difference in incomes as unjust. Large income inequality between countries also leads to migration, because people from poor countries realize they can migrate to rich countries and increase their income significantly. Tensions arise because rich countries don't want to have too many people overwhelm their social safety systems and in some cases might also have problems culturally and socially integrating the migrants. Finally, there is the purely ethical consideration, which says we should care about each individual in the world approximately the same, that we should not be totally indifferent to the fate of people who are very poor. MM: You mentioned investment in education, health care and infrastructure as primary tools to remedy inequality. Are there other key elements, including for international policy?
There is however an important role for international organizations, because the argument can reasonably be made that the current system as embodied in the World Trade Organization and international institutions is basically skewed against poorer countries. For instance, protection of intellectual property rights has now become much stronger and makes the transfer of technology to poorer countries much more expensive than was the case 20 or 30 years ago, or at the time when today's rich countries were poorer and often copied technology freely from each other. While today's rich countries were able to imitate, and learn from each other when they were developing in the nineteenth century, today's poor countries are inhibited from doing so because they need to pay huge sums to get patent rights and access new technology. Of course another example which everyone quotes these days is agricultural and textile subsidies in the rich world, which negates the comparative advantage of poor countries. So there is a scope also for policies which would help inequality and poverty at the world level. MM: What would you prescribe as an appropriate role for income transfer policies -- whether domestically, regionally or internationally -- to remedy inequality?
It is much more difficult to argue that there should be the same policy at the world level. People in country x, which is rich, are certainly much less interested in the fate of people in country y, which is very poor, than they are in what happens in their own country. This is quite understandable both because people feel more concerned about those who are closer to them and because their own welfare, in terms of say political stability, may be more strongly influenced by what happens to the poor who live nearby than what happens to people who are faraway. But I think that we have nevertheless made some progress in the area of world redistribution. If you look 30 or 40 years ago, there was no official development assistance. It didn't exist at all. Now for the first time rich world countries are willing to transfer money to the poorer countries. There is of course the issue whether the money is sufficient. I think that most people would agree that it is not. It falls far short of rather modest and formally accepted UN targets. A second problem is whether the money is well used, and there is general consensus that it is not. So greater accountability or transparency in the use of this money is important. The big question is how that greater transparency can be insured. I think that this is the next big issue in international aid with which we shall have to deal. Only when we can show that money is reasonably well used will there be greater willingness from the people in the rich countries to transfer some more money. MM: You have also floated the idea that aid money perhaps should be conditioned on or related to levels of inequality in recipient countries.
It is desirable to give assurance to the taxpayer in the rich world, first that the money is not going to be badly used, and secondly that it will be a "progressive transfer," that is that it will be a transfer which will help someone who is poorer than he or she. If you have countries with very high levels of inequality of income, as in Latin America, then you really can doubt that this kind of progressive transfer will occur. MM: How would you operationalize the idea of tying aid to inequality levels?
Consider Bangladesh and Nigeria. These two countries have approximately the same level of income, but inequality is much greater in the latter. The mean-to-median ratio is 1.7 in Nigeria and 1.2 in Bangladesh. The introduction of inequality-adjusted income will therefore penalize Nigeria and could possibly disqualify it from receiving soft loans as long as inequality remains so high. This is similar to what is already being done through attempts to aid more countries with good governance and lower corruption. As already mentioned, this proposal is based on the simple idea that transfers at the international level should follow the same rules as transfers at the national level: they should flow from a richer to a poorer person, and hence be inequality reducing. Overall, I think there is a movement toward some redistributive scheme at the world level. People like John Rawls basically saw a very limited role for international redistribution, but I think that that view is becoming superseded by a growing awareness of global inequality and poverty. This in turn will lead to greater willingness to help in the rich world provided one can reasonably insure that transfers are helping the poor. However, redistribution at the world level cannot be a substitute for normal economics. Greater opportunity to benefit from international trade and technology is key for poor countries' development. This will not happen until the current rules of the game, often determined by the rich world alone, are changed. n |
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Africa has traditionally been characterized by very high levels of inequality, similar to those in Latin America. To give you sort of a feeling how large they are, inequality levels are close to double of those in the United States. |
Is inequality within China and India increasing? The answer is, yes, it is going up. Inequalities between different provinces or states are rising, and inequalities between urban and rural areas have increased, and of course inequality between individuals has gone up. | |
Elements which level inequality have to do mostly with domestic policies -- investment in education, in health and infrastructure, and social transfers as well as progressive taxation. | My view is that in very poor countries increased openness to foreign investment and trade might exacerbate inequalities. There is some evidence that it is only at some middling levels of income around the three C's -- Chile, Colombia and the Czech Republic -- where one might find a reversal in the sense that the poor benefit more from openness than the rich. |